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GMAT Sample Papers

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The Graduate Management Education Test (GMAT) is a gateway for admission into various management programs, business or finance-related courses. The GMAT is a global entrance exam for management and business/finance courses. Success unlocks opportunities to study abroad in premier business schools across the US, Canada, Singapore, and India.

In order to get a high score it is important that you are aware of the exam format, sections, types of questions and other details of the entire exam. Taking more GMAT sample papers will help you understand the format better, and reviewing one section at a time will help you achieve the highest GMAT score. Through this article you will get a better understanding of the exam format, importance of sample paper, type of questions, important tips to remember and much more.

 

Importance of GMAT Sample Papers

GMAT Sample Papers or mock tests are the most important helpful preparation material. You should begin your preparation by taking a sample test, this will give you an idea of your strengths, weaknesses & your gap areas to work on, during the time of your preparation. These sample papers mirror the actual exam, hence will help you to become familiar with the test pattern and topics covered in the exam.

Click here to take the free Manya – The Princeton Review GMAT practice tests and get a comprehensive score report that provides in-depth guidance on your strengths, weaknesses, and where you have opportunities for improvement.

 

Benefits of Solving GMAT Sample Papers

These are a few ways that can help you to solve GMAT sample questions:

  • First of all, familiarize yourself with the structure of the question paper which simulates the actual exam conditions.
  • It helps you to identify the stronger areas of the subject and assess your weaknesses.
  • It boosts your confidence and helps you to prepare in the right direction as it gives you an idea of how the paper would be.
  • It helps you to make strategies for managing time according to the question paper.

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Structure of GMAT Exam Sample Paper 2024

The GMAT Exam sample paper has both objective and subjective questions and consists of three sections — Quantitative Reasoning, Data Insights, Verbal Reasoning. The total time duration to complete the exam is 2 hours 15 minutes.

The GMAT exam has three sections:

  • Verbal Reasoning – 23 questions
  • Quantitative Reasoning – 21 questions
  • Data Insights– 20 questions

The Verbal and Quantitative sections consist of Multiple-Choice questions. Whereas, Integrated Reasoning has questions in a variety of formats.

A good GMAT test score is calculated based on the Verbal and Quantitative section scores. Integrated Reasoning and Analytical Writing scores are reported separately.

Here is a quick overview of the exam patterns of the GMAT exam:

  • Quantitative Reasoning: This section measures your algebraic and arithmetic foundational knowledge and how you apply this knowledge to solve problems. It is composed of 21 Problem Solving questions.These types of questions require some knowledge of arithmetic and elementary algebra. Answering these questions correctly relies on logic and analytical skills, not the underlying math skills. You cannot use a calculator while working on this section.
  • Data Insights :The Data Insights section measures candidates’ ability to analyze and interpret data and apply it to real-world business scenarios. With the GMAT™ Exam – Focus Edition’s updated test design, Data Insights leverages Integrated Reasoning and Data Sufficiency question types to measure a newly calibrated digital and data literacy dimension—one of the most relevant and in-demand skills in business today.
  • Verbal Reasoning:This section measures your ability to read and comprehend written material and to reason and evaluate arguments. It is composed of 23 Reading Comprehension and Critical Reasoning questions.

+Essential Points Related to GMAT Exam Pattern

  • There is only one question displayed on the screen at a time and multiple-choice options are given for the answer which will be preceded by circles.
  • Various types of questions will also appear on the screen in random order in the multiple-choice and Integrated reasoning sections.
  • Candidates have to answer using the computer mouse or laptop cursor.
  • Candidates can move toward the next question only after confirming the choice for the question displayed on the screen.

 

Tips to Solve the GMAT Question Paper

These are some helpful tips to solve GMAT sample question papers:

  • Stay focused on one question. Manage your time in such a manner that all sections can be solved.
  • To save you time. Have a look at the options given for the questions.
  • Don’t waste your time on solving an easy question. Make a smart guess.
  • Outline to solve the sample question paper.

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Sample GMAT Questions

Get a taste of the GMAT with these sample questions. The answers are at the bottom of the page.

Question 1: A certain company sells tea in loose leaf and bagged form, and in five flavors: Darjeeling, Earl Grey, chamomile, peppermint, and orange pekoe. The company packages the tea in boxes that contain either 8 ounces of tea of the same flavor and the same form, or 8 ounces of tea of 4 different flavors and the same form. If the order in which the flavors are packed does not matter, how many different types of packages are possible?

A. 12
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
E. 30

 

Question 2: Karen sold her house at a loss of 25 percent of the price that she originally paid for the house and then bought another house at 30 percent less than the price she originally paid for her first house. If she sold the first house for $225,000, what was her net gain, in dollars, for the two transactions?

A. $15,000
B. $25,000
C. $60,000
D. $75,000
E. $90,000

 

Question 3: In a certain company, at least 200 people are in manual transmission vehicles. If 12 percent of the people who own manual transmission vehicles also own automatic transmission vehicles, do more people own automatic transmission vehicles than own manual transmission vehicles?

  1. 5 percent of the people who own an automatic transmission vehicle also own a manual transmission vehicle.
  2. 15 people own both an automatic transmission vehicle and a manual transmission vehicle.A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.

B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.

C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

D. EACH Statement ALONE is sufficient.

E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data are needed.

 

Question 4: What is the value of x ⁄2?

  1. x is 1 ⁄ 5 less than 9 ⁄ 10
  2. x is between 2 ⁄ 5 and 4 ⁄ 5A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.

B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.

C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

D. EACH Statement ALONE is sufficient.

E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data are needed.

 

Question 5: In order to better differentiate its product from generic brands, the cereal company first hired a marketing firm that specializes in creating campaigns to build brand awareness and then retools its factory to produce a variety of different shapes of cereal.

A. then retools its factory to produce a variety of different shapes of cereal

B. retools its factory to produce a variety of different shapes of cereal

C. then retooled its factory to produce a variety of different shapes of cereal

D. then will retool its factory to produce a variety of different shapes of cereal

E. then produces a variety of different shapes of cereal by retooling its factory

 

Question 6: Believed to be one of the first widely read female authors of the Western world, Christine de Pizan’s masterwork The Book of the City of the Ladies, was written in 1405 and is a history of the Western world from the woman’s point-of-view.

A. Believed to be one of the first widely read female authors of the Western world

B. Written by one of the first widely read female authors of the Western world

C. One of the first widely read female authors of the Western world, as some belief

D. Written by what some belief was one of the first widely read female authors of the Western world

E. Believed by some as one of the first works by a widely-read female author in the Western world

 

Question 7: One food writer wrote that reducing the number of animal products in one’s diet can contribute to better health and well-being. Based on this claim, some people are completely eliminating meat from their diets to be healthier.
The argument above relies on which of the following assumptions?

A. Increasing the number of vegetables and grains in one’s diet can contribute to better health.

B. There will be no corresponding increase in the number of dairy products in the diets of those who are eliminating meat.

C. Most food writers believe that some amount of animal products is necessary for a healthy diet.

D. Not all healthy lifestyles require a vegetarian diet.

E. Many people who do not eat animal products make decisions for health reasons.

 

Question 8: Studies reveal that a daily exercise regimen helps stroke survivors regain dexterity in their extremities. Being given an exercise routine and having a consultation with a doctor about the exercise routine are effective mechanisms to get patients to exercise daily.

From the above information, which of the following statements can be reasonably inferred?

A. A stroke survivor that is given a detailed exercise plan and consults her physician about the plan will regain full dexterity in her extremities.

B. If a stroke survivor is not given an exercise plan and does not consult with a doctor, she will not regain dexterity in her extremities.

C. Stroke survivors who are given an exercise routine and consult with a doctor about that routine will sometimes regain dexterity in their extremities.

D. Being given an exercise routine and having a consultation with a doctor about the routine is the best way to help stroke survivors regain dexterity in their extremities.

E. Only being given an exercise routine is necessary to regenerate dexterity in the extremities of seniors who have suffered a stroke.

 

Questions 9, 10, and 11 are based on this passage:

Although oft-maligned in modern culture, the pigeon once stood not only for speed and reliability but also for grace and beauty. Darwin himself became a pigeon fancier after beginning to work with the humble Columbia livia, discovering them to be more fascinating than he had formerly believed. During the Victorian age, raising show pigeons was a popular hobby, with new breeds continuously arising as amateur (and not-so-amateur) ornithologists crossed animals in the hopes of creating ever more fantastic creatures. One of the most sought-after varieties was known as the Almond Tumbler, a name presumably derived from the color of the birds combined with the distinctive flight style. Throughout many generations, this bird was so manipulated as to have a beak so small as to prevent the adult birds from feeding their offspring. And yet, it was wildly popular drawing high prices at auctions and high prices at competitions.

How then did an animal once so well-loved come to be so loathed? As recently as World War II, the military used pigeons to carry messages but today, many people would kick a pigeon before they would feed one. Perhaps it is just a problem of population density, a lack of esteem for that which is ubiquitous. Pigeons have become our constant urban companions and, as such, have been transformed from symbols of peace, plenty, and prosperity, to representatives of disease and decay.

 

Question 9: The primary purpose of this passage is to

A. convince the reader of the nobility of the pigeon, based on its history as a symbol of virtue

B. dissuade the reader from mistreating a once-majestic animal that has fallen from favor

C.rebut claims that pigeon carries disease any more frequently than other domestic animals

D. promote a renewal of pigeon fancying and a resurgence of breeds such as the Almond Tumbler

E. suggest that there might be more to the story of some urban wildlife than is commonly known

 

Question 10: The case of the Almond Tumbler is most analogous to which of the following?

A. a strain of wheat that can be grown in plentiful quantities but loses much of its nutritional value in the process

B. Arabian horses are able to run at phenomenal speeds due to centuries of careful breeding designed to enhance those physical attributes

C. vitamins that were purported to provide all of the necessary nutrients but have since been found not to be very effective

D. the dachshund, a popular breed of dog that is nonetheless prone to severe back problems, due to weaknesses exacerbated by targeted breeding

E. the wild rock doves that are most commonly found nesting in the faces of cliffs far from human habitation

 

Question 11: The passage suggests that

A. pigeons were once known for flying with celerity

B. the Almond Tumbler was the most beautiful breed of pigeon

C. Darwin was infatuated with his fancy pigeons

D. modern pigeons are dirtier than the fancy pigeons of yore

E. only scientists should breed new kinds of animals

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Answers to Sample Questions

  1. Answer: (C)

Number of ways to package in 8-ounce boxes, all the same flavor: 5 flavors x 2 forms = 10 ways

Number of ways to package 4 flavors of the same form: choose 4 of 5 flavors = 1 of 5 = 5 ways

Each combination can come in 2 forms, so 2 different forms x 5 combinations = 10 ways

Thus, the total number of combinations is 10 + 10 = 20 total combinations.

The answer is choice (C).

 

2. Answer: (A)

If Karen sold her first house for $225,000 and at a loss of 25 percent, then 25 percent of the original price equals $225,000. 75 ⁄ 100 x = 225,000, so x, or the price she originally paid, equals $300,000. Thus, Karen lost $75,000 on the sale of her first house. If she bought a second house for a price of 30 percent less than $300,000, then the second house cost $210,000, so she gained $90,0000. $90,000 – $75,000 = $15,000, so the answer is choice (A).

 

3. Answer: (A)

According to a statement (1), 5 percent of the people who own an automatic transmission vehicle also own a manual transmission vehicle. The question also indicates that 12 percent of the people who own a manual transmission vehicle also own an automatic transmission vehicle. Both figures relate to the total number who own both, so that means that 5 percent of the automatic transmission owners = 12 percent of the manual transmission owners. The overlap in ownership makes up a smaller percentage of those who own automatic transmission vehicles, so there must be more people who own automatic transmission vehicles. Statement (1) is sufficient, so you can eliminate choices (B), (C), and (E).

Statement (2) indicates that 15 people own both an automatic transmission vehicle and a manual transmission vehicle, so you know that 12 percent of the people who own a manual transmission is equal to 15 people. 12 ⁄ 100 = 15, so x = 125. Thus, 125 people own a manual transmission vehicle. However, you have no further information to allow you to calculate the number of people who own automatic transmission vehicles, so statement (2) is insufficient.

The answer is choice (A).

 

4. Answer: (A)

Statement (1) allows you to find the value of x, so you can answer the question. (If x is 1 ⁄ 5 less than 9 ⁄ 10, then 9 ⁄ 10 – 1 ⁄ 5 = x. 1 ⁄ 5 = 2 ⁄ 10, so x equals 9 ⁄ 10 – 2 ⁄ 10 = 7 ⁄ 10 . If x equals 7 ⁄ 10, then x ⁄ 2 = 7 ⁄ 10 divided by 2, or 7 ⁄ 20.) Statement (1) is sufficient, so eliminate choices (B), (C), and (E).

According to the statement (2), x is between 2 ⁄ 5 and 4 ⁄ 5. That means that one possible value for x is 3 ⁄ 5, but another possible value is 7 ⁄ 10. Statement (2) is insufficient.

The answer is choice (A).

 

5. Answer: (C)

The actions of the cereal company were all in the past. Answer choices (A), (B), and (D) are in the present tense. Choice (E) is in the future tense.

 

6. Answer: (B)

As written, this sentence has a misplaced modifier error. The main sentence begins with a mention of the book, so the introductory phrase should describe the book. Choices (A) and (C) describe the author rather than the book, and can therefore be eliminated. In Choices (B), (D), and (E) the introductory phrase refers to a written work, but choices (D) and (E) use the incorrect idiom believe as rather than the correct form believe to be.

 

7. Answer: (B)

The argument states that some people are eliminating meat from their diets because reducing the number of animal products in one’s diet can lead to better health. Meat is only one type of animal product, however. The argument assumes that by eliminating meat, people are reducing the total amount of animal products in their diets. Choice (A) addresses increasing the number of vegetables and grains, but the argument just deals with animal products. Choice (B) correctly addresses the people who are eliminating meat and states that those people are not increasing their consumption of dairy, which is another instance of using animal products. Thus, these people are reducing the number of animal products in their diets. Choice (C) addresses most food writers, who are irrelevant to this argument. Choice (D) addresses healthy lifestyles, which are irrelevant to this particular argument. Choice (E) addresses the reasons behind not eating animal products, which is irrelevant to the argument.

 

8. Answer: (C)

Look for an answer choice that can be reasonably inferred from the given information. The passage states that a daily exercise regimen helps stroke survivors regain dexterity in their extremities and that survivors who are given an exercise routine and who have a consultation with a doctor about the routine are effective at getting patients to exercise daily. So it can be inferred that if a survivor is given a routine and consults with a doctor, they are more likely to exercise daily, which will help them regain dexterity.

Choice (A) is an example of extreme language. The phrasing will regain full dexterity is not promised in the information in the passage, as the passage only states that a routine and consultations may help a survivor exercise more. Eliminate (A).

Choice (B) is also an example of extreme language. There is no way to discern from the information provided that a strong survivor would not regain dexterity without an exercise routine and a consultation, so eliminate (B).

Choice (C) is a reasonable inference to make from the information in the passage so keep (C). Choice (D) also contains extreme language in the best way. The information does not compare this method with any other method, so eliminate (D).

Choice (E) contains misleading language and does not address consulting with a doctor, so eliminate (E).

 

9. Answer: (E)

The passage gives a brief description of the pigeon’s place in recent human history and then goes on to contrast that with modern perspectives of the birds.

Choice (A) goes too far—the author doesn’t give any indication of believing the pigeon to be noble.

Choice (B) focuses too specifically on a side comment in the second paragraph.

Choice (C) also focuses too specifically on side comments—the passage is not primarily about the disease.

Choice (D) is too strong—the passage isn’t promoting any specific action.

Choice (E) remains neutral and informational, as does the passage.

 

10. Answer: (D)

The Almond Tumbler is described as a breed of pigeon that was very popular during the Victorian era. The passage also mentions that the selective breeding used to create that particular kind of bird also led to tiny beaks that kept parent birds from feeding their babies. Therefore, the best analogy would be another animal that is popular even though it has problems due to its design.

Choice (A) is incorrect because it leaves out the aspect of popularity.

Choice (B) is only positive and you need something that’s also negative.

Choice (C) is not about something that has been bred for a specific purpose, nor does it deal with popularity.

Choice (D) correctly refers to a popular animal with a common health problem.

Choice (E) does not refer to pigeons that have been bred by humans.

 

11. Answer: (A)

For a question this open-ended, it’s usually best to check each of the answers against the passage.

Choice (A) appears to match the opening line of the passage, which states that the pigeon once stood not only for speed and reliability.

Choice (B) goes too far—although many Victorians seem to have loved the Tumbler, there’s no evidence that it was the most beautiful.

Choice (C) also goes too far—the passage mentions that Darwin was fascinated by his pigeons, not that he was infatuated.

Choice (D) draws an incorrect assumption—the passage comments that the common opinion has changed, not the pigeon itself.

Choice (E) is not supported by the passage, which states that amateurs, as well as trained individuals, bred pigeons.

 

What is a Good GMAT Score?

While many candidates aim for a score of ‘700 or more, the GMAT scores of people accepted in graduate management programs span a wide range, not just across business schools but also within a school. The GMAT score, while important, is just one of the factors that matter for MBA admissions. Your academic record, achievements at work, essays, interviews, and letters of recommendation are important too.

The GMAT exam has been designed to produce a wide range of scores for a wide range of business schools. For some programs, the average GMAT score is maybe 580 or even less. In the top schools, the average GMAT score is 730 or more. For example, the GMAT score range of students admitted to Stanford Business School in the class of 2019 was from 690 to 790, with an average of 737.

So what is a good GMAT score? It is a score that gets you admission into a program that is right for you.

 

How is the GMAT Score Calculated?

Before applying for the GMAT exam, candidates must know how exactly the GMAT scores are calculated. Some students do not know how they can get a score of 720 or above as scores are calculated differently in the GMAT exam. The total GMAT score obtained by the candidates ranges from 205 to 805.The Total Score is now comprised of all 3 section scores

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FAQ's

What does GMAT paper look like?

Both the GMAT Online exam and the GMAT test centre exam have the same structure. There are 4 sections namely, AWA, IR, Quantitative Reasoning, and Verbal Reasoning. There are 3 section orders available.

  • AWA, IR, Quantitative Reasoning, Verbal Reasoning
  • Verbal Reasoning, Quantitative Reasoning, IR, AWA
  • Quantitative Reasoning, Verbal Reasoning, IR, AWA

The GMAT exam is 3 hours and 7 minutes long excluding the two optional 8-minute breaks and tutorials.

Where can I take the GMAT practice test?

You must take the practice test in the simulated environment. Let’s say that if you have already planned to take the test at the test centre, you must take the practice exam at a nearby library or a GMAT coaching centre. However, if you are planning to take the GMAT Online exam (home-testing), you may take the GMAT practice test at your home.

What is the structure of the GMAT exam 2023?

Both the GMAT Online exam and the GMAT test centre exam have the same structure. There are 4 sections namely, AWA, IR, Quantitative Reasoning, and Verbal Reasoning. There are 3 section orders available.

  • AWA, IR, Quantitative Reasoning, Verbal Reasoning
  • Verbal Reasoning, Quantitative Reasoning, IR, AWA
  • Quantitative Reasoning, Verbal Reasoning, IR, AWA

The GMAT exam is 3 hours and 7 minutes long excluding the two optional 8-minute breaks and tutorials.

How long should I study to prepare for the GMAT?

Ideally, a student should study for at least 3 to 4 hours every day for the GMAT preparation. However, if you are a working professional or a college student and do not have much time during the weekdays, you may start by giving 2 hours per day to the GMAT preparation during the weekdays and more time during the weekends when you are relatively free.

How to create the perfect GMAT Study Plan?

You must keep in mind various factors before you plan your study for the GMAT. Some of the factors are as follows:

  • The number of hours you can devote to the GMAT study every day.
  • Time of the day when you are going to study – fix the time.
  • Tentative test date, if you have not registered for the test already.
  • Test plan for taking GMAT mock tests.
  • Your strengths and weak areas.
  • Study material

How many questions are in the GMAT Question Bank?

There are 3000+ practice questions in Manya – TPR Student Portal. The Princeton Review keeps on adding new questions and editing the old ones as per the changes in the GMAT questions. A team of teachers takes tests from time to time in order to upgrade the quality of questions so that you learn only what is required for the GMAT and do not waste your time learning the concepts which are not tested on the GMAT.

Besides the TPR portal, the GMAT Official Guide by GMAC and Additional Practice Material book (for practising harder questions) are provided in the GMAT kit which consists of hundreds of questions for additional practice.

What are the areas from which the questions are asked in GMAT 2023 Exams?

The concepts tested in the GMAT Quantitative Reasoning section are no greater than what the students learn in high school. The section tests Arithmetic, Algebra, Geometry, and Word Problems. Note that topics such as Trigonometry, Calculus, and Complex numbers are not tested on the GMAT exam. Some questions may appear to require Trigonometry formulas for getting the answer. This will happen only if you lack knowledge of certain concepts which are a part of the US curriculum but not taught in other curriculums.

GMAT Verbal Reasoning section measures your English language skills such as your ability to read and understand passages on a range of topics, critically evaluate logical arguments, and correct sentences to conform to standards of written English and ensure clarity of meaning. Knowledge of certain grammar rules is required for getting Sentence Correction questions right.

GMAT Integrated Reasoning syllabus includes data analysis abilities (data from figures, graphs, tables, charts, etc.) and logical reasoning.
GMAT Analytical Writing Assessment (AWA) section contains one essay prompt and is 30 minutes long. The AWA tests your ability to analyze a logical argument and then write a coherent and convincing essay, evaluating the argument.

What is the test writing procedure?

The GMAT is an online test and can be taken either at the test centre or from the comfort of your home. You are provided with two wet-erase markers and a note board consisting of 5 laminated sheets in a spiral-bound booklet format in the test centre setting. If you are taking the GMAT Online exam (home-testing), you are allowed to use a physical whiteboard, online whiteboard, or both for scratch work and note-taking.

Is it hard to score 600+ on the GMAT?

The answer to this question is relative to your current preparation. If you are already scoring 500+, scoring 600+ on the GMAT will not be very challenging. However, if you are someone who is scoring below 500, then scoring 600+ may be comparatively harder.

It, also, depends on your learning speed. In general, students can score 600+ easily if they are disciplined, follow the right learning strategies, use standardized GMAT materials, and know the application of techniques specifically designed to get GMAT questions right quickly and accurately. You may join a GMAT Online course that includes all of the above besides getting direct help from an expert GMAT teacher who will guide you throughout to help you get your desired score.

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